Sbi Junior Associate Previous Years Questions Papers With Solution 2008
Preliminary Examination Questions Paper 2008 With Solution(प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा)
SBI Clerk Exam Pattern 2021: Prelims
SBI Clerk Prelims Exam is a Screening exam. It is to weed out not serious candidates from the competition. There is sectional timing for each section i.e., English, Reasoning, and Mathematics. Candidates need to clear the sectional cutoff as well as the overall cutoff to qualify for the SBI Clerk Prelims. Candidates can check the SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Pattern in the table below.
SBI Clerk Exam Pattern 2021 Prelims: Phase I
Preliminary Examination (online) consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. This test would be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 Sections as follows:
Note- 1.Candidates have to qualify in each of the three sections by securing minimum cut-off marks to be decided by SBI. The adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by SBI depending upon requirements will be shortlisted for Online Main Examination.
2.Penalty for Wrong Answers (Applicable to both – Online Preliminary and Online Main examinations). There will be a penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as a penalty to arrive at a corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question
3.The questions in objective tests, except for the test of General English, will be bilingual i.e., English & Hindi.
[Solution]*SBI Associate Clerk Preliminary Exam Previous Years Questions Papers With Solution 2008 PDF free Download
English(30 Que./30 Marks/20Minutes)
Instructions:-Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the question.
A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’ account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However the mere opening of a bank account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present, commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their paper work, economic cost of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts, make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on both the supply and the demand side.
Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for saving. Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception do have funds to save, but lack control.Informal mutual saving system like the Rotating Saving and Credit Associations (ROSCAs) widespread in Africa, and ‘thrift and credit group’s in india demonstrate that poor households save. For the poor household which lack access to the formal insurance system and the credit system, saving provide a safety net and help them tide over crises. Saving can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more productive activities as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall higher rate of return.
Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied. They offered new products with ‘commitment features’ One type had withdrawal restrictions in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the savings even if he wanted to.These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid. Surprisingly these products were popular even though these had restrictions.Results showed that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater saving rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial inclusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs having a diversified product portfolio for the poor but recognising that self control problems needed to be addressed by having commitment devices. The product with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit villages periodically.
Question 1.
What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ?
A. A focus on saving needs rather than credit needs of the poor
B. Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor
C. To boost low saving among the rural poor
D. To make formal basic banking service available to the poor
E. To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor
Answer: D
Explanation:It is clearly mentioned at the start of paragraph that the financial inclusion aims to make formal banking system available to the poor.
Hence, the correct option is option D.
Question 2.
The authors main objective in writing the passage is to………..
A. criticise the concept of financial inclusion
B. point out the problems of financial inclusion
C. discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful
D. compare financial inclusion policies of different countries
E. cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion
Answer: C
Explanation:
Initially, it may seem that author is just comparing financial inclusion policies of different countries. However, on little introspection it is
revealed that, author is just making us aware of different financial inclusion policies to suggest ways to make our financial inclusion
sucessful.
Question 3.
Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ?
(A) Demand for such products
(B) They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders
(C) Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs.
A. (B) and (C)
B. Only (B)
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. All (A), (B) and (C)
E. None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
All the inferences are made from the third paragraph.
This paragraph talks about the demand for such products, their role in increasing the savings of people and the fact that they can only
be given by informal institutions.
Hence, all three infermnces are corrrect.
Option D is correct.
Question 4.
Why do the poor not utilise banking services ?
(A) Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks
(B) Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor
(C) Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are minimal.
A. Only (B)
B. Both (A) and (B)
C. Both (B) and (C)
D. All (A), (B) and (C)
E. None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
Many a times, the banks are located in cities or distant town. The expenses to reach them have to be born by poor and hence they
refrain from utilising the banking services.
Therefore, the correct option is option A.
Question 5.
Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial inclusion ?
A. Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder
B. Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology
C. Make commitment features compulsory for all saving accounts
D. Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFI,s
E. Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the last paragraph, author recommends the use of latest technology for making the services more affordable. This in turn will help
poor people to avail them more readily.
Hence, the correct option is option B.
Question 6.
Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor ?
(A) Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services.
(B) Documentation required before availing of banking services.
(C) Lack of self-control.
A. Only (A)
B. All (A), (B) and (C)
C. Only (C)
D. Both (B) and (C)
E. None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
The author outlines that poor do not have necessary documentation and also that self control is a big issue.
Both these factors contribute in affedcting the 'saving' habit negatively among the poor.
Therefore, the correct option is option D.
Question 7.
What do the result of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ?
A. Account holders in MFIs have higher saving rates than banks
B. Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs.
C. Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate interest
D. There should be strong measures for deposit option accounts for the poor
E. None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
Only the option A statement states the results of the study. All other option statements are out of contextual inference in one way or
other.
Hence, option A is the correct option.
Question 8.
Which of the following is True in the context of the passage ?
A. There are no informal means for the poor to save in India
B. Having saving encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures
C. There is a huge demand for saving facilities among the poor households
D. Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor in rural areas
E. There are many official innovative savings systems like ROSCAs in Africa
Answer: C
Explanation:
In second paragraph of text, author clearly mentions that there is demand of savings system among the poor households.
All other statement either lack factual correctness or draw incorrect inferences.
Hence, the correct option is option C.
Question 9.
What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ?
(A) It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders
(B) Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save
(C) They should invest in risky but high return ventures
A. Only (A)
B. Both (A) and (B)
C. Only (C)
D. All (A), (B) and (C)
E. None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
The text clearly points out that exploitation by moneylender can be avoided if savings habit is encouraged among the poor. Even banks
are more willing to give loans if households have savings in some for or other.
Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Question 10.
What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ?
A. They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated
B. Banks were looking at these accounts from a credit perspective
C. Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to the poor
D. Products with commitment features will not be successful
E. None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the second paragraph, it is clearly mentioned that the banks were viewing the poor household from only the credit perspective.
Hence, the correct option is option B.
Question 11.
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in the meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Purely
A. morally
B. honestly
C. completely
D. perfectly
E. cleanly
Answer: C
Explanation:
The banks were viewing the poor household completely from a credit perspective.
Within the context of passage purely does mean completely.
Hence, the correct option is option C.
Question 12.
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in the meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Demonstrate
A. protest
B. occur
C. estimate
D. appear
E. prove
Answer: E
Explanation:
In the context of given passage, demonstrate means to show.
The closest word in the options that matches with this meaning is "prove". The correct option is option E.
Question 13.
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in the meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage:
Remedy
A. medicine
B. solve
C. restore
D. therapy
E. heal
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the text, 'remedy' has been used in context of 'solving' the problem.
Hence, the correct option is B.
Question 14.
Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in the meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Optional
A. voluntary
B. compromise
C. pressure
D. mandatory
E. free
Answer: D
Explanation:
Optional means voluntary in the passage.
It's opposite is mandatory.
The correct option is option D.
Question 15.
Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in the meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Accessible
A. convenient
B. unavailable
C. unfavourable
D. unpleasant
E. formal
Answer: B
Explanation:
Accesible means available.
And the opposite of available is unavaillable.
Instructions:-Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it.The error,if any, will be in one part of sentence.The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
Question 16.
The scheme failed because (A)/ some states could not,(B)/ manage not to raise(C)/ the necessary funds(D)/No error(E).
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
E. (E)
Answer: C
Explanation:
In part C, there is no need of 'not'.
The statement should read as;
The scheme failed because some states could not manage to raise the necessary funds.
Question 17.
Real estate prices in the(A)/ business district of the city(B)/ are expected to rise(C)/ at 15% this year(D)/ No error (E).
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
E. (E)
Answer: E
Explanation:
The statement is correct and does not have any errors.
Question 18.
By so early as next year(A)/ that leading investment bank(B)/ has plans to open(C)/ an office in New Delhi(D)/ No error(E)
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
E. (E)
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is error in part A of the statement.
The correct statement would read as:
By as early as next year that leading investment bank has plans to open an office in New Delhi.
Hence, the correct option is option A.
Question 19.
There is lots of(A)/ supports from the employees(B)/ for the proposal to(C)/ merge with the parent company(D)/ No error(E).
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
E. (E)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The error is in part B.
The correct statement would read as:
There is lots of support from the employees for the proposal to merge with the parent company.
Question 20.
Experts have recommended that(A)/ the government reconsidered(B)/ restrictions imposed on foreign (C)/ investment in real
estate(D)/ No error(E).
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
E. (E)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The error is in part B.
The sentence is in present perfect tense while past form of the verb has been wrongly used.
Hence, the correct option is B.
Instructions:-Which of the phrases at (a), (b),(c)and (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark(e) as the answer.
Question 21.
The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity.
A. led to
B. Will lead towards
C. and has led in
D. which has led to
E. No correction is required
Answer: D
Explanation:
From the context, we can infer that the phrase indicates causality between overstaffing and low productivity. Hence, the correct phrasal
verb to use in this case is 'led to'. As the event has already occurred, the correct tense to use would be the past tense. The phrase is
part of the subordinate clause and hence should begin with "which". Hence, option D.
Question 22.
You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression
A. you delay to take
B. If you delay taking
C. Your delay in taking
D. To delay by taking
E. No correction is required
Answer: C
Explanation:The verb "conveys" is modifying "delay". Hence, "delay" is the subject.
Therefore, "your", which is an object form of "you", must be present here.
Hence, option C is the answer.
Question 23.
Today management student it self are opted to work for NGOs even though salaries offered to them are low
A. student itself is
B. student themselves are
C. students have
D. student himself has
E. No correction is required
Answer: C
Explanation:
"Them" is used => Plural.
Hence, the subject must be plural.
Only option C satisfies this condition.
Hence, option C is the answer.
Question 24.
Absence off any guidelines they are unwilling to take up the project
A. Absent of
B. In the absence of
C. Because of the absence
D. Without being absent
E. No correction is required
Answer: B
Explanation:
The gramatically correct sentence would read as:
In the absence of any guidelines they are unwilling to take up the project
Question 25.
Without the development of rural people country can no claim to be developed.
A. Can never claim
B. being claimed
C. not able to claim
D. have not any claim
E. No correction is required
Answer: A
Explanation:
Gramatically correct statement would read as:
Without the development of rural people, country can never claim to be developed.
Hence, the correct option is A.
Instructions:-In each of the following sentence there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted as (a),(b),(c),(d) and (e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Question 26.
Mr.Srinivasan is _________to become Chairman of the group________the retirement of his father
A. set, following
B. voted, subsequent
C. selected, despite
D. approved, because
E. decided, after
Answer: A
Explanation:
Here, option E as well as option option A can be chosen.
However, option A words are more eloquent.
The sentence would now read as:
Mr.Srinivasan is set to become Chairman of the group following the retirement of his father
Hence, the correct answer is A.
Question 27.
________to your error the ______consignment has been delayed by a week.
A. According, important
B. Duly, urgent
C. Owing, entire
D. Added, crucial
E. Admitting, special
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only the pair of words corresponding to the option C matches the context of the sentence.
The statement would read as: Owing to your error the entire consignment has been delayed by a week.
Hence, the correct option is option C.
Question 28.
On account of the _____in sales the software firm has achieved an eight per cent _________in net profit.
A. surge, fall
B. increase,rise
C. decline, slope
D. hike, loss
E. growth, advance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Only pair of words corresponding to option B fits the context.
Hence, the corrected statement would read as:
On account of the increase in sales the software firm has achieved an eight per cent rise in net profit.
Question 29.
We are proud to say that today____26 per cent of our total accounts are______by women and senior citizens.
A. approximate, held
B. nearly, authorised
C. over, maintain
D. above, open
E. around, operated
Answer: E
Explanation:
The pair of words corresponding to option E suit the context better than other pair of words.
Hence, the statement would read as:
We are proud to say that today around 26 per cent of our total accounts are operated by women and senior citizens.
Question 30.
The company has ____ special training to employees on ____ to trade online.
A. announced, benefits
B. offered, course
C. imparted, risks
D. sanction, skills
E. provided, how
Answer: E
Explanation:
The pair of words corresponding to option E suit the context better.
The sentence which is read as:
The company has provided special training to employees on how to trade online.
Hence, the correct option is E.
Mathematics(35 Que./35 Marks/20Minutes)
Instructions:-What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
Question 31.
? % of 5600¬28% of 3500=1988
A 58
B 55
C 51
D 53
E None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reframing the question to simplify,
1988+28% of 3500 = 1988+(28*35)
Which reduces to,
1988+980=2968
2968=(x/100)*5600
x=2968/56
x=53
Question 32.
6389-1212-2828= ?
A 2349
B 2493
C 2934
D 2393
E None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
Now, 1212 + 2828 = 4040
Therefore, 6389-4040 = 2349
Question 33.
526 × 12 + 188 = 50×?
A 120
B 160
C 140
D 110
E None of these
Answer: E
Explanation:
526 × 12 = 6312
6312 + 188 = 6500
Let the number in the question mark be X.
So, X × 50 = 6500
X = 130
Question 34.
4,19,49,94,154, ?
A 223
B 225
C 229
D 239
E None of these 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the given series, the nth tern is (previous term+(n-1)*15).
We are supposed to find 6th term.
Hence, 6th term in series = 154+75= 229
Question 35.
Mr.Nair's monthly salary is rs 22,500. He took a loan of rs 30,000 on simple interest for 3 years at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. The amount that he will be paying as simple interest in 3 years is what percent of his monthly salary ?
A 10
B 18
C 20
D 25
E None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
Interest = (Principal * interest * No. of years )
Interest = (30,000*3*5)/100
Interest = 4,500
x% of 22,500 = 4,500
x = (4500/22,500)*100
x = 20
Question 36.
(7921 ÷ 178) − 5.5 = √?
A 1512
B 1521
C 1251
D 1531
E None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let unknown be x,
(7921 ÷ 178) − 5.5 = √x
Hence, x=[(7921/178)-5.5]^2=39^2=1521
Question 37.
25639-5252-3232=?
A 17255
B 17551
C 17515
D 17155
E None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question is written as 25639 - (5252+3232) = 25639 - 8484 = 17155
Question 38.
283 × 56 + 252 = 20×?
A 805
B 803
C 807
D 809
E None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
Now, let unknown be x.
283*56=15848
15848+252=16100
20x=16100
x=805
Question 39.
16% of 250+115% of 480=?
A 522
B 588
C 582
D 498
E None of these
Answer: E
Explanation:
We need to find the value of 16% of 250+115% of 480
Let us find the value of the individual elements first
16% of 250 = 0.16 x 250 = 40
115% of 480 = 1.15 x 480 = 11.5 x 48 = 552
Hence, the sum equals 40 + 552 = 592
As this is not one of the options given, the correct answer is option (e)
Question 40.
16.45 × 2.8 + 4.5 × 1.6 =?
A 56.23
B 56.32
C 53.26
D 53.66
E None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to find the value of 16.45 × 2.8 + 4.5 × 1.6, let us find the value of the individual elements first
16.45 × 2.8 = 46.06
4.5 × 1.6 = 7.2
46.06 + 7.2 = 53.26
Hence, the sum equals which is option (c)
Question 41.
(8.2% of 365)-(1.75% of 108)= ?
A 16.02
B 28.04
C 42.34
D 53.76
E None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
8.2% * 365 = 29.93
1.75% * 108 = 1.89
So, 8.2%*365 - 1.75%*108 = 29.93 - 1.89 =28.04
Question 42.
[(135)2 ÷ 15 × 32)]÷? = 45 × 24
A. 18
B. 24
C. 36
D. 44
E. None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
The number in the place of the question mark equals
Question 43.
A 33856
B 30276
C 174
D 184
E None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the number in the question mark be X.
Question 44.
4368+2158-596-?=3421+1262
A 1066
B 1174
C 1247
D 1387
E None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the number in the question mark be X.
So, X = 4368+2158-596-3421-1262 = 1247
Question 45.
2172÷? = 1832 − 956 − 514
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12
E None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let them number in the question mark be X.
So, 2172÷ = 1832 − 956 − 514 = 362
So, 2172÷ 362
Or, X = 2172 ÷ 362 = 6
Question 46.
666.06+66.60+0.66+6.06+6+60=?
A 819.56
B 808.38
C 826.44
D 798.62
E None of these
Answer: E
Explanation:
The number in the question mark equals 666.06 + 66.60 + 0.66 + 6.06 + 6 + 60 = 805.38
Question 47.
15.594-4.312-3.517-1.689=?
A 6.706
B 6.760
C 6.670
D 6.607
E None of these
Answer: E
Explanation:
The number in the question mark equals 15.594 - 4.312 - 3.517 - 1.689 = 6.076
As it doesn't equal any of the four options, the correct answer is 'None of These'
Question 48.
205×? × 13 = 33625 + 25005
A 22
B 27
C 33
D 39
E None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the number which should be used in place of the question mark equals X.
Hence, 205x ×13 = 33625 + 25005 = 58630
So, 205x = 4510
So, x = 22
Question 49.
69 ÷ 3 × 0.85 + 14.5 − 3 =?
A 36.45
B 23.85
C 42.95
D 18.65
E None of these
Answer: E
Explanation:
69 ÷ 3 = 23
23 × 0.85 = 19.55
So, 19.55 + 14.5 − 3 = 31.05
As this is not given in the list of options provided, the correct answer is 'None of these'
Question 50.
A 3
B 10
C 100
D 1000
E None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
By rule of indices,
Instructions:-What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following numbers series.
Question 51.
12, 6.5, 7.5, 12.75, 27.5, 71.25, ?
A 225.5
B 216.75
C 275
D 236.75
E 249.75
Answer: B
Explanation:
The given series is based on the following sequence,
(12+1)*0.5 = 6.5
(6.5+1)*1 = 7.5
(7.5+1)*1.5=12.75
(12.75+1)*2 = 27.5
(27.5+1)*2.5 = 71.25
(71.25+1)*3 = 216.75
Question 52.
16, 24, 36, 54, 81, 121.5 ?
A 182.25
B 174.85
C 190.65
D 166.55
E 158.95
Answer: A
Explanation:
Each number in the series is 1.5 times the preceding number.
Hence, 16*1.5 = 24
24*1.5 = 36
36*1.5 = 54
54*1.5=81
81*1.5 = 121.5
So, the next number is 121.5*1.5 = 182.25
Question 53.
12, 12, 18, 45, 180, 1170, ?
A 13485
B 14675
C 15890
D 16756
E 12285
Answer: E
Explanation:
The ratio between preceding terms of the sequence are in a fibonacci sequence.
For example, 12/12 = 1
18/12 = 1.5
45/18 = 2.5 (which is 1+1.5)
180/45 = 4 (which is 1.5+2.5)
1170/180 = 6.5 (which is 2.5+4)
Hence, the next ratio would be 4+6.5=10.5
And the required number is 1170*10.5 = 12285
Question 54.
22, 23, 27, 36, 52, 77, ?
A 111
B 109
C 113
D 117
E 115
Answer: C
Explanation:
The difference between consecutive terms of the series is a perfect square.
For example,
23-22 = 1
27-23 = 4
36-27 = 9
52-36 = 16
77-52 = 25
Hence, the next difference between the numbers will be 36 and the required number is 77+36 = 113
Question 55.
16, 14, 24, 66, 256, 1270, ?
A 8564
B 5672
C 4561
D 7608
E 6340
Answer: D
Explanation:
The given terms are in the following series,
14 = 16*1 - 2*1
24 = 14*2 - 2*2
66 = 24*3 - 2*3
256 = 66*4 - 2*4
1270 = 66*5 - 2*5
Hence, the next term equals 1270*6 - 2*6 = 7608
Instructions:-Study the following table carefully to answer the question that follows:
NUMBER OF BOYS AND GIRLS IN FIVE STREAMS OF A COLLEGE OVER THE YEARS
Question 56.
What is the total number of boys, for all the streams together, in the year 2004?
A 4148
B 3630
C 4433
D 3247
E None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
The total number of boys in the year 2004 is 672+540+859+778+781 = 3630
NUMBER OF BOYS AND GIRLS IN FIVE STREAMS OF A COLLEGE OVER THE YEARS
Question 57.
The number of boys in Art stream in the year 2004 is approximately what per cent of the total number of boys for all the years
together in Art stream ?
A 27
B 34
C 08
D 39
E 16
Answer: E
Explanation:
The number of boys in the Arts stream in 2004 is 672
The total number of boys in the Arts stream in all the years equals 556+763+672+809+745+698 = 4243
Hence, the required percentage is 672/4243*100 = 15.84% ~ 16%
NUMBER OF BOYS AND GIRLS IN FIVE STREAMS OF A COLLEGE OVER THE YEARS
Question 58.
What is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total numbers of girls from all the stream together for the year 2007 ?
A 2:3
B 14:13
C 52:49
D 213: 170
E None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
The total number of boys in 2007 equals 698 + 765 + 571 + 1288 + 1151 = 4473
The total number of girls in 2007 equals 413 + 616 + 515 + 1016 + 1010 = 3570
Hence the ratio equals 4473:3570 = 213*21 : 170*21 = 213:170
NUMBER OF BOYS AND GIRLS IN FIVE STREAMS OF A COLLEGE OVER THE YEARS
NUMBER OF BOYS AND GIRLS IN FIVE STREAMS OF A COLLEGE OVER THE YEARS
Reasoning(35 Que./35 Marks/20Minutes)
Instructions:-For the following questions answer them individually
Question 66.
Among M, T, R and P, M is older than only P.T is older than R. Who among them is the oldest ?
A T
B R
C T or R
D Data inadequate
E None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
With qiven information, we can establish the relation that,
M>P and T>R.
and also given "M is older than only P" ==> Both T, R are older than M.
==> The oldest among them is T.
So the correct option to choose is A - T.
Question 67.
Four of the following five are like in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
A Hill
B Valley
C Dam
D River
E Mountain
Answer: C
Explanation:
Apart from Dam, all others are natural topographic features. Dam is the only man made structure.
Hence, the correct option is C.
Question 68.
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters of the words EROS only once in each word ?
A None
B One
C Two
D Three
E More than three
Answer: E
Explanation:
The words that can be formed are:
ROSE, EROS, SORE, SERO.
4 words can be formed.
Therefore, more than 3 i.e option E is correct option.
Question 69.
If ‘P’ denotes ‘+’, ‘R’ denotes ‘ ÷’, ‘T’ denotes ‘-’ and ‘W’ denotes ‘x’, then 40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16 = ?
A 50
B 46
C 30
D 70
E None of these
Answer: E
Explanation:
40 R 8 W 10 T 12 P 16 means 40÷ 8x10-12+16.
Now, going by BODMAS rule, we first divide and then multiply.
40/8=5, 5*10=50, 50-12=38, 38+16=54
Here, none of the options is 54.
Therefore, the correct answer is option E.
Question 70.
What should come next in the following numbers sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4
A 8
B 5
C
6
D 2
E None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the given number sequence, the 2 is repeated and at nth place staring from 2 to (n+1) number is repeated.
This can also be visualised by viewing the series as:
2
2 3
2 3 4
2 3 4 5
2 3 4 5 6
2 3 4 5 6 7
Hence, the next number in series, going by this logic would be 5.
The correct option is B
Question 71.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONSTABLE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
A None
B One
C Two
D Three
E More than three
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the word CONSTABLE, the pair of words,
1. O&N,
2. S&T and
3.A&B
are immediate to each other as in alphabetical series.
Hence, there are three such pairs and correct option is D.
Question 72.
In a certain code BOARD is written as 54#12 and MORE is written as 941$. How is DREAM written in that code ?
A 21$#9
B 2$1#9
C 51$#9
D 25$#9
E None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
By analysing the coding of the words, we get the key as:
